[En-Nut-Discussion] General PPP Question

[c.a.m at blueyonder.co.uk]

On Wed, 4 Feb 2004 18:25:45 +0100, you wrote:

>Hi @all!
> 
>Maybe this isn't exactly an ethernut question, but I think (and hope)
>someone can help me!
> 
>I have a PPP implementation that works well with a German ISP. After the
>PAP Ack the ISP
>sends an  IPCP Request and everything works fine.
> 
>Then I tested it via GPRS and an GPRS provider. This provider seems to
>wait for the client
>to send an IPCP Request.
> 
>Does everybody now if it's right that some ISP send an IPCP Request and
>others wait for the
>client to do so?? And if it's true, how can software handle it? Because
>if both sides send requests,
>it seems that there will be no end with the IPCP phase.

Well, the way I see it, is that you send your request no matter what (after both
sides have accepted each others LCP options), with your ip entries set to
0.0.0.0 (unless you are using fixed ip's).

I spent quite some time writing a complete PPP routine etc (it's on the AVR
freaks site in the projects area - ppp.zip).

So far, it works flawlessly on a windows ppp server, BY and NTL ISP's via dial
up modem, and on the vodaphone and orange networks via gprs here in the UK.

As soon as the LCP options are done with, I send an immediate IPCP request with
the 3 ip's set to 0.0.0.0 ... whether they send their IPCP first makes no odd's
really, you just rej the compression option to start with (if you don't use
compression), and ack the ip option they send (the next time they send their
request).

As with the LCP options, the negotiations are separate (each end), and it
doesn't matter who sends the first request.

Lexxy