[En-Nut-Discussion] General PPP Question

[Dusan Ferbas]

Hi Geffers,

as far as I know both sides should send IPCP requests because each side has 
to be assigned with an IP address. IP address can be 0.0.0.0 then it is a 
request for assignment from the other side. Nonzero address can be REJected 
or NAKed to negotiate. It can happen that both sides want to force their 
idea of IP address. In such a case PPP negotiation always fails.

LCP negotiation can be initiated from one side. This is not true for IPCP.

I assume that if you are connecting to an ISP you should send IPCP conf. 
req. and you should send it with 0.0.0.0, DNS1,2 0.0.0.0 options.

>Date: Wed, 4 Feb 2004 18:25:45 +0100
>From: "Geffers, Thorsten" <tgeffers at web.de>
>Subject: [En-Nut-Discussion] General PPP Question
>
>Hi @all!
>
>Maybe this isn't exactly an ethernut question, but I think (and hope)
>someone can help me!
>
>I have a PPP implementation that works well with a German ISP. After the
>PAP Ack the ISP
>sends an  IPCP Request and everything works fine.
>
>Then I tested it via GPRS and an GPRS provider. This provider seems to
>wait for the client
>to send an IPCP Request.
>
>Does everybody now if it's right that some ISP send an IPCP Request and
>others wait for the
>client to do so?? And if it's true, how can software handle it? Because
>if both sides send requests,
>it seems that there will be no end with the IPCP phase.
>

Dusan